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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 05:43

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What is the sum of X+XX+XXX+XXXX?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Romania in the past was a poor country, but last year the government announced it had 521 billion leu (113$ billion dollars) revenue. Why is so much? What's the reason?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Can you turn 150 pages into a 5 minute presentation before a meeting?

There's no rule.